Saturday, May 21, 2011

MODEL TEST PAPER DOWNLOAD 1

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Model Test Paper For General Studies (CSAT Paper-1)

[ SET - II ]


1. Why did Buddhism start declining in India in the early medieval times?
  1. Buddha was by that time consideredas one of the incarnations of Vishnu andthus became a part of Vaishnavism
  2. The invading tribes from Central Asiatill the time of last Gupta king adopted Hinduism and persecuted Buddhists.
  3. The Kings of Gupta dynasty were strongly, opposed to Buddhism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. With reference to feimon Commission’s recommendations,which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) It recommended the replacement of diarchy with responsible government in the provinces.
(b) It proposed the setting up of interprovincial council under the Home Department.
(c) It suggested the abolition of bicameral legislature at the Centre.
(d) It recommended the creation of Indian Police Service with a provision for increased pay and allowances for British recruits as compared to Indian recruits.
3. Four resolutions were passed at the famous Calcutta session of Indian National Congress in 1906. The question of either retention OR of rejection of these four resolutions became the cause of a split in Congress at the next Congress session held in Surat in 1907. Which one of the following was not one of those resolutions?
(a) Annulment of partition of Bengal
(b) Boycott
(c) National education
(d) Swadeshi
4. After Quit India Movement, C. Rajagopalachari issued a pamphlet entitled “The Way Out”. Which one of the following was a proposal in this pamphlet?
(a) The establishment of a “War Advisory Council” composed of representatives of British India and the Indian States.
(b) Reconstitution of the Central Executive Council in such a way that all its members, except the Governor General and the Commander - in -Chief should
be Indian leaders.
(c) Fresh elections to the Central and Provincial Legislatures to be held at the end of 1945 and the Constitution making body to be convened as soon as possible.
(d) A solution for the constitutional deadlock.
5. Who among the following Governor Generals created the Covenanted Civil Service of India which later came to be known as the Indian Civil Service?
(a) Warren Hastings
(b) Wellesley
(c) Cornwallis
(d) William Bentinck
6. What was the immediate cause for the launch of the Swadeshi movement?
(a) The partition of Bengal done by Lord Curzon.
(b) A sentence of 18 months rigorous imprisonment imposed on Lokmanya Tilak.
(c) The arrest and deportation of Lala Lajpat Rai and Ajit Singh; and passing of the Punjab Colonization Bill.
(d) Death sentence pronounced on the Chapekar brothers.
7. Consider the following statements:
1. Dr. Rajendra Prasad persuaded Mahatma Gandhi to come to Champaran to investigate the problem of peasants.
2. Acharya J. B. Kriplani was one of Mahatma Gandhi’s colleagues in his Champaran investigation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
8. By a regulation in 1793, the District Collector was deprived of his judicial powers and made the collecting agent only. What was the reason for such regulation?
(a) Lord Cornwallis felt that the District Collector’s efficiency of revenue collection would enormously increase without the burden of ‘other work.
(b) Lord Cornwallis felt that Judicial power should compulsorily be in the hands of Europeans while Indians can be given the job of revenue collection in the
districts.
(c) Lord Cornwallis was alarmed at the extent of power concentrated in the District Collector and felt that such absolute power was undesirable in one person.
(d) The judicial work demanded a deep knowledge of India and a good training in law and Lord Cornwallis felt that District Collector should be only a revenue collector.
9. Consider the following statements:
1. The “Bombay Manifesto” signed in 1936 openly opposed the preaching of socialist ideals.
2. It evoked support from a large section of business community from all across India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
10. For the Karachi session of Indian National Congress in 1931 presided over by Sardar Patel, who drafted the Resolution on Fundamental Rights and Economic Programme?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
11.Who among the following were official Congress negotiators with Cripps Mission?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi and Sardar Patel
(b) Acharya J. B. Kripalani and C. Rajagopalachari
(c) Pandit Nehru and Maulana Azad
(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad and Rafi Ahmed Kidwai
12. What was the immediate reason for Ahmad Shah Abdali to invade India and fight the Third Battle of Panipat?
(a) He wanted to avenge the expulsion by Marathas of his viceroy Timur Shah from Lahore.
(b) The frustrated governor of Jullundhar Adina Beg Khan invited him to invade Punjab.
(c) He wanted topunish Mughal administration for non-payment of the revenues of the Chahar Mahal (Gujarat, Aurangabad, Sialkot and Pasrur).
(d) He wanted to annex all the fertile plains of Punjab up to the borders of Delhi to his kingdom.
13. With reference to Pondicherry (now Puducherry), consider the following statements:
1. The first European power to occupy Pondicherry were the Portuguese.
2. The second European power to occupy Pondicherry were the French.
3. The English never occupied Pondichierry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
14. There are only two known examples of cave paintings of the Gupta period in ancient India. One of these is paintings of Ajanta caves.
Where is the other surviving example of Gupta paintings?

(a) Bagh caves
(b) Ellora caves
(c) Lomas Rishi cave
(d) Nasik caves
15. Among the following, who was not a proponent of bhakti cult?
(a) Nagarjuna
(b) Tukaram
(c) Tyagaraja
(d) Vallabhacharya
16. If a potato is placed on a pure paper platewhich iswhite and unprinted and put in a microwave oven, the potato heats up but the paper plate does not.This is because:
(a) Potato is mainly made up of starch whereas paper is mainly made up of cellulose.
(b) Potato transmits microwaves whereas paper reflects microwaves.
(c) Potato contains water whereas paper does not contain water.
(d) Potato is a fresh organic material whereas paper is a dead organic material.
17. Chlorination is a process used for water-purification. The disinfecting action of chlorine is mainly due to
(a) The formation of hydrochloric acid when chlorine is added to water.
(b) The formation of hypochlorous acid when chlorine is added to water.
(c) The formation of nascent oxygen when chlorine is added to water.
(d) The formation of hydrogen when chlorine is added to water.
18. Widespread resistance of malarial parasite to drugs like chloroquine has prompted attempts to develop a malarial vaccine to combat malaria.
Why is it difficult to develop an effectivemalaria vaccine?

(a) Malaria is caused by several species of Plasmodium.
(b) Man does not develop immunity to malaria during natural infection.
(c) Vaccines can be developed only against bacteria
(d) Man is only an intermediate host and not the definitive host
19. A pesticide which is a chlorinated hydrocarbon is sprayed on a food crop. The food chain is: Food crop - Rat - Snake - Hawk. In this food chain, the
highest concentration of the pesticide would accumulate in which one of the following?

(a) Food crop
(b) Rat
(c) Snake
(d) Hawk
20. India-based Neutrino Observatory is included by the Planning Commission as a mega science project under the 11th Five-Year Plan. In this context, consider the following statements:
1. Neutrinos are chargeless elementary particles that travel close to the speed of light.
2. Neutrinos are created in nuclear reactions of beta decay.
3. Neutrinos have a negligible, but nonzero mass.
4. Trillions of Neutrinos pass through human body every second.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
21. Consider the following:
1. Oxides of Hydrogen
2. Oxides of Nitrogen
3. Oxides of Sulphur
Which of the above causes/cause acid rain?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
22. Some species of plants are insectivorous. Why?
(a) Their growth in shady and dark places does not allow them to undertake sufficient photosynthesis and thus they depend on insects for nutrition.
(b) They are adapted to grow in nitrogen deficient soils and thus depend on insects for sufficient nitrogenous nutrition.
(c) They cannot synthesize certain vitamins themselves and depend on the insects digested by them.
(d) They have remained in that particular stage of evolution as living fossils, a link between autotrophs and heterotrophs.
23. What is the principle by which a cooling system (Radiator) in a motor car works?
(a) Conduction only
(b) Convection
(c) Radiation only
(d) Both conduction & radiation
24. King Cobra is the only snake that makes its own nest. Why does it make its nest?
(a) It is a snake - eater and the nest helps attract other snakes.
(b) It is a viviparous snake and needs a nest to give birth to its offspring.
(c) It is an oviparous snake and lays its eggs in the nest and guards the nest until they are hatched.
(d) It is a large, cold blooded animal .and needs a nest to hibernate in the cold season.
25. Consider the following statements:
1. The Taxus tree naturally found in the Himalayas.
2. The Taxus tree is listed in the Red Data Book.
3. A drug called “taxol” is obtained from Taxus tree is effective against Parkinson’s disease.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
26. Indiscriminate disposal of used fluorescent electric lamps causes mercury pollution in the environment. Why ismercury used in them anufacture of these lamps?
(a) A mercury coating on the inside of the lamp makes the light bright white.
(b) When the lamp is switched on, the mercury in the lamp causes the emission of ultra-violet radiations.
(c) When the lamp is switched on, it is the mercury which converts the ultraviolet energy into visible light.
(d) None of the statement given above is correct about the use of mercury in the manufacture of fluorescent lamps.
27. Which one of the following processes in the bodies of living organisms is a digestive process?
(a) Breakdown of proteins into amino acids
(b) Breakdown of glucose into CO2 and H2O
(c) Conversion of glucose into glycogen
(d) Conversion of amino acids into proteins
28. From the point of view of evolution of living organisms, which one of the following is the correct sequence of evolution?
(a) Otter - Tortoise - Shark
(b) Shark - Tortoise - Otter
(c) Tortoise - Shark - Otter
(d) Shark - Otter - Tortoise
29. Consider the following statements:
1. Hepatitis B is several times more infectious than HIV/AIDS
2. Hepatitis B can cause liver cance.-
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
30. Excessive release of the pollutant carbon monoxide (CO) into the air may produce a condition in which oxygen supply in the human body decreases. What causes this condition?
(a) When inhaled into the human body, CO is converted into CO2
(b) The inhaled CO has much higher affinity for haemoglobin as compared to oxygen
(c) The inhaled CO destroys the chemical structure of haemoglobin
(d) The inhaled CO adversely affects the respiratory centre in the brain
31. Consider the following statements:
1. Every individual in the population is equally susceptible host for Swine Flu.
2. Antibiotics have no role in the primary treatment of Swine Flu.
3. To prevent the future spread of Swine Flu in the epidemic area, the swine (pigs) must all be culled.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
32. With regard to the transmission of the Human Immuno deficiency Virus, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) The chances of transmission from female to male are twice as likely as from male to female.
(b) The chances of transmission are more if a person suffers from other sexually transmitted infections.
(c) An infected mother can transmit the infection to her baby during pregnancy, at childbirth and by breast feeding.
(d) The risk of contracting infection from transfusion of infected blood is much higher than an exposure to contaminated needle.
33. Mon 863 is a variefy ofmaize. Itwas in the news for the following reason
(a) It is a genetically modified dwarf variety which is resistant to drought.
(b) It is a genetically modified variety which is pest resistant.
(c) It is a genetically modified variety with ten times higher protein content than regular maize crop.
(d) It is a geneticallymodified variety used exclusively for bio-fuel production.
34. Consider the following statements: The satellite Oceansat - 2 launched by India helps in
1. estimating the water vapour content in the atmosphere.
2. predicting the onset of monsoons.
3. monitoring the pollution of coastal waters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
35. Genetically modified “golden rice” has been engineered tomeet human nutritional requirements. Which one of the following statements best qualifies golden rice?
(a) The grains have been fortified with genes to provide three times higher grain yield per acre than other high yielding varieties.
(b) Its grains contain pro-vitamin A which upon ingestion is converted to vitamin A in the human body.
(c) Itsmodified genes cause the synthesis of all the nine essential amino acids.
(d) Its modified genes cause the fortification of its grains with vitamin D.
36. Consider the following:
1. Bluetooth device
2. Cordless phone
3. Microwave oven
4. Wi - Fi device
Which of the above can operate between 2.4 and 2.5 GHz range of radio frequency band?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
37. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles produce one of the following as “exhaust”
(a) NH3
(b) CH4
(c) H2O
(d) H2O2
38. Recently, LASIK (Laser Assisted In Situ Keratomileusis) procedure is being made popular for vision correction. Which one of the following statements in this context is not correct?
(a) LASIK procedure is used to correct refractive errors of the eye.
(b) It is a procedure that permanently changes the shapes of the cornea.
(c) It reduces a person’s dependence on glasses or contact lenses.
(d) It is a procedure that can be done on the person of any age.
39. Which bacterial strain, developed from natural isolates by genetic manipulations, can be used for treating oil spills?
(a) Agrobacterium
(b) Clostridium
(c) Nitrosomonas
(d) Pseudomonas
40. Which feature of some species of blue-green algae helps promote them as bio-fertilisers?
(a) They convert atmospheric methane into ammonia which the crop plants can absorb readily.
(b) They induce the crop plants to produce the enzymes which help convert atmospheric nitrogen to nitrates.
(c) They have the mechanism to convert atmospheric nitrogen into a form that the crop plants can absorb readily.
(d) They induce the roots of the crop plants to absorb the soil nitrates in larger quantities.
41. Other than Jatropha curxas, why is Pongamia pinnata also considered a good option for the production of biodiesel in India?
1. Pongamia pinnata grows naturally in most of the arid regions of India.
2. The seeds of Pongamia pinnata are rich in lipid content of which nearly half is oleic acid.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
42. Due to their extensive rice cultivation, some regions may be contributing to global warming. To what possible reason/reasons is this attributable?
1. The anaerobic conditions associated with rice cultivation cause the emission of methane.
2. When nitrogen based fertilizers are used, nitrous oxide is emitted fromthe cultivated soil.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
43. Given below are the names of four energy crops. Which one of them can be cultivated for ethanol?
(a) Jatropha
(b) Maize
(c) Pongamia
(d) Sunflower
44. Which among the following do/does not belong/belongs to the GSM family of wireless technologies?
(a) EDGE
(b) LTE
(c) DSL
(d) Both EDGE and LTE
45. With reference to the treatment of cancerous tumours, a tool called cyber knife has been making the news. In this context, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) It is a robotic image guided system.
(b) It delivers an extremely precise dose of radiation.
(c) It has the capability of achieving submillimetre accuracy.
(d) It can map the spread of tumour in the body.
46. In the context of space technology, what is “Bhuvan”, recently in the news?
(a) A mini satellite launched by ISRO for promoting the distance education in India.
(b) The name given to the next Moon Impact Probe, for Chandrayan - II.
(c) A geoportal of ISRO with 3D imaging capabilities of India.
(d) A space telescope developed by India.
47. With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements:
1. The Ministries Departments of the Government of India are created by the Prime Minister on the advice of the Cabinet Secretary.
2. Each of the Ministries is assigned to a Minister by the President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and2
(d) Neither 1 nor2
48. Under the administration of which one of the following is the Department of Atomic Energy?
(a) Prime Minister’s Office
(b) Cabinet Secretariat
(c) Ministry of Power
(d) Ministry of Science and Technology
49. In India, who is the Chairman of the National Water Resources Council?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Minister of Water Resources
(c) Minister of Environment and Forests
(d) Minister of Science and Technology
50. If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within
(a) 1 month
(b) 3 months
(c) 6 months
(d) 1 year

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