MODEL TEST PAPER DOWNLOAD 1

Model Test Paper For General Studies (CSAT Paper-1)

[ SET - II ]

1. Why did Buddhism start declining in India in the early medieval times?

1. Buddha was by that time consideredas one of the incarnations of Vishnu andthus became a part of Vaishnavism
2. The invading tribes from Central Asiatill the time of last Gupta king adopted Hinduism and persecuted Buddhists.
3. The Kings of Gupta dynasty were strongly, opposed to Buddhism.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. With reference to feimon Commission’s recommendations,which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) It recommended the replacement of diarchy with responsible government in the provinces.
(b) It proposed the setting up of interprovincial council under the Home Department.
(c) It suggested the abolition of bicameral legislature at the Centre.
(d) It recommended the creation of Indian Police Service with a provision for increased pay and allowances for British recruits as compared to Indian recruits.
3. Four resolutions were passed at the famous Calcutta session of Indian National Congress in 1906. The question of either retention OR of rejection of these four resolutions became the cause of a split in Congress at the next Congress session held in Surat in 1907. Which one of the following was not one of those resolutions?
(a) Annulment of partition of Bengal
(b) Boycott
(c) National education
(d) Swadeshi
4. After Quit India Movement, C. Rajagopalachari issued a pamphlet entitled “The Way Out”. Which one of the following was a proposal in this pamphlet?
(a) The establishment of a “War Advisory Council” composed of representatives of British India and the Indian States.
(b) Reconstitution of the Central Executive Council in such a way that all its members, except the Governor General and the Commander - in -Chief should
be Indian leaders.
(c) Fresh elections to the Central and Provincial Legislatures to be held at the end of 1945 and the Constitution making body to be convened as soon as possible.
(d) A solution for the constitutional deadlock.
5. Who among the following Governor Generals created the Covenanted Civil Service of India which later came to be known as the Indian Civil Service?
(a) Warren Hastings
(b) Wellesley
(c) Cornwallis
(d) William Bentinck
6. What was the immediate cause for the launch of the Swadeshi movement?
(a) The partition of Bengal done by Lord Curzon.
(b) A sentence of 18 months rigorous imprisonment imposed on Lokmanya Tilak.
(c) The arrest and deportation of Lala Lajpat Rai and Ajit Singh; and passing of the Punjab Colonization Bill.
(d) Death sentence pronounced on the Chapekar brothers.
7. Consider the following statements:
1. Dr. Rajendra Prasad persuaded Mahatma Gandhi to come to Champaran to investigate the problem of peasants.
2. Acharya J. B. Kriplani was one of Mahatma Gandhi’s colleagues in his Champaran investigation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
8. By a regulation in 1793, the District Collector was deprived of his judicial powers and made the collecting agent only. What was the reason for such regulation?
(a) Lord Cornwallis felt that the District Collector’s efficiency of revenue collection would enormously increase without the burden of ‘other work.
(b) Lord Cornwallis felt that Judicial power should compulsorily be in the hands of Europeans while Indians can be given the job of revenue collection in the
districts.
(c) Lord Cornwallis was alarmed at the extent of power concentrated in the District Collector and felt that such absolute power was undesirable in one person.
(d) The judicial work demanded a deep knowledge of India and a good training in law and Lord Cornwallis felt that District Collector should be only a revenue collector.
9. Consider the following statements:
1. The “Bombay Manifesto” signed in 1936 openly opposed the preaching of socialist ideals.
2. It evoked support from a large section of business community from all across India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
10. For the Karachi session of Indian National Congress in 1931 presided over by Sardar Patel, who drafted the Resolution on Fundamental Rights and Economic Programme?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
11.Who among the following were official Congress negotiators with Cripps Mission?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi and Sardar Patel
(b) Acharya J. B. Kripalani and C. Rajagopalachari
(c) Pandit Nehru and Maulana Azad
(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad and Rafi Ahmed Kidwai
12. What was the immediate reason for Ahmad Shah Abdali to invade India and fight the Third Battle of Panipat?
(a) He wanted to avenge the expulsion by Marathas of his viceroy Timur Shah from Lahore.
(b) The frustrated governor of Jullundhar Adina Beg Khan invited him to invade Punjab.
(c) He wanted topunish Mughal administration for non-payment of the revenues of the Chahar Mahal (Gujarat, Aurangabad, Sialkot and Pasrur).
(d) He wanted to annex all the fertile plains of Punjab up to the borders of Delhi to his kingdom.
13. With reference to Pondicherry (now Puducherry), consider the following statements:
1. The first European power to occupy Pondicherry were the Portuguese.
2. The second European power to occupy Pondicherry were the French.
3. The English never occupied Pondichierry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
14. There are only two known examples of cave paintings of the Gupta period in ancient India. One of these is paintings of Ajanta caves.
Where is the other surviving example of Gupta paintings?
(a) Bagh caves
(b) Ellora caves
(c) Lomas Rishi cave
(d) Nasik caves
15. Among the following, who was not a proponent of bhakti cult?
(a) Nagarjuna
(b) Tukaram
(c) Tyagaraja
(d) Vallabhacharya
16. If a potato is placed on a pure paper platewhich iswhite and unprinted and put in a microwave oven, the potato heats up but the paper plate does not.This is because:
(a) Potato is mainly made up of starch whereas paper is mainly made up of cellulose.
(b) Potato transmits microwaves whereas paper reflects microwaves.
(c) Potato contains water whereas paper does not contain water.
(d) Potato is a fresh organic material whereas paper is a dead organic material.
17. Chlorination is a process used for water-purification. The disinfecting action of chlorine is mainly due to
(a) The formation of hydrochloric acid when chlorine is added to water.
(b) The formation of hypochlorous acid when chlorine is added to water.
(c) The formation of nascent oxygen when chlorine is added to water.
(d) The formation of hydrogen when chlorine is added to water.
18. Widespread resistance of malarial parasite to drugs like chloroquine has prompted attempts to develop a malarial vaccine to combat malaria.
Why is it difficult to develop an effectivemalaria vaccine?
(a) Malaria is caused by several species of Plasmodium.
(b) Man does not develop immunity to malaria during natural infection.
(c) Vaccines can be developed only against bacteria
(d) Man is only an intermediate host and not the definitive host
19. A pesticide which is a chlorinated hydrocarbon is sprayed on a food crop. The food chain is: Food crop - Rat - Snake - Hawk. In this food chain, the
highest concentration of the pesticide would accumulate in which one of the following?
(a) Food crop
(b) Rat
(c) Snake
(d) Hawk
20. India-based Neutrino Observatory is included by the Planning Commission as a mega science project under the 11th Five-Year Plan. In this context, consider the following statements:
1. Neutrinos are chargeless elementary particles that travel close to the speed of light.
2. Neutrinos are created in nuclear reactions of beta decay.
3. Neutrinos have a negligible, but nonzero mass.
4. Trillions of Neutrinos pass through human body every second.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
21. Consider the following:
1. Oxides of Hydrogen
2. Oxides of Nitrogen
3. Oxides of Sulphur
Which of the above causes/cause acid rain?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
22. Some species of plants are insectivorous. Why?
(a) Their growth in shady and dark places does not allow them to undertake sufficient photosynthesis and thus they depend on insects for nutrition.
(b) They are adapted to grow in nitrogen deficient soils and thus depend on insects for sufficient nitrogenous nutrition.
(c) They cannot synthesize certain vitamins themselves and depend on the insects digested by them.
(d) They have remained in that particular stage of evolution as living fossils, a link between autotrophs and heterotrophs.
23. What is the principle by which a cooling system (Radiator) in a motor car works?
(a) Conduction only
(b) Convection
(c) Radiation only
(d) Both conduction & radiation
24. King Cobra is the only snake that makes its own nest. Why does it make its nest?
(a) It is a snake - eater and the nest helps attract other snakes.
(b) It is a viviparous snake and needs a nest to give birth to its offspring.
(c) It is an oviparous snake and lays its eggs in the nest and guards the nest until they are hatched.
(d) It is a large, cold blooded animal .and needs a nest to hibernate in the cold season.
25. Consider the following statements:
1. The Taxus tree naturally found in the Himalayas.
2. The Taxus tree is listed in the Red Data Book.
3. A drug called “taxol” is obtained from Taxus tree is effective against Parkinson’s disease.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
26. Indiscriminate disposal of used fluorescent electric lamps causes mercury pollution in the environment. Why ismercury used in them anufacture of these lamps?
(a) A mercury coating on the inside of the lamp makes the light bright white.
(b) When the lamp is switched on, the mercury in the lamp causes the emission of ultra-violet radiations.
(c) When the lamp is switched on, it is the mercury which converts the ultraviolet energy into visible light.
(d) None of the statement given above is correct about the use of mercury in the manufacture of fluorescent lamps.
27. Which one of the following processes in the bodies of living organisms is a digestive process?
(a) Breakdown of proteins into amino acids
(b) Breakdown of glucose into CO2 and H2O
(c) Conversion of glucose into glycogen
(d) Conversion of amino acids into proteins
28. From the point of view of evolution of living organisms, which one of the following is the correct sequence of evolution?
(a) Otter - Tortoise - Shark
(b) Shark - Tortoise - Otter
(c) Tortoise - Shark - Otter
(d) Shark - Otter - Tortoise
29. Consider the following statements:
1. Hepatitis B is several times more infectious than HIV/AIDS
2. Hepatitis B can cause liver cance.-
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
30. Excessive release of the pollutant carbon monoxide (CO) into the air may produce a condition in which oxygen supply in the human body decreases. What causes this condition?
(a) When inhaled into the human body, CO is converted into CO2
(b) The inhaled CO has much higher affinity for haemoglobin as compared to oxygen
(c) The inhaled CO destroys the chemical structure of haemoglobin
(d) The inhaled CO adversely affects the respiratory centre in the brain
31. Consider the following statements:
1. Every individual in the population is equally susceptible host for Swine Flu.
2. Antibiotics have no role in the primary treatment of Swine Flu.
3. To prevent the future spread of Swine Flu in the epidemic area, the swine (pigs) must all be culled.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
32. With regard to the transmission of the Human Immuno deficiency Virus, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) The chances of transmission from female to male are twice as likely as from male to female.
(b) The chances of transmission are more if a person suffers from other sexually transmitted infections.
(c) An infected mother can transmit the infection to her baby during pregnancy, at childbirth and by breast feeding.
(d) The risk of contracting infection from transfusion of infected blood is much higher than an exposure to contaminated needle.
33. Mon 863 is a variefy ofmaize. Itwas in the news for the following reason
(a) It is a genetically modified dwarf variety which is resistant to drought.
(b) It is a genetically modified variety which is pest resistant.
(c) It is a genetically modified variety with ten times higher protein content than regular maize crop.
(d) It is a geneticallymodified variety used exclusively for bio-fuel production.
34. Consider the following statements: The satellite Oceansat - 2 launched by India helps in
1. estimating the water vapour content in the atmosphere.
2. predicting the onset of monsoons.
3. monitoring the pollution of coastal waters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
35. Genetically modified “golden rice” has been engineered tomeet human nutritional requirements. Which one of the following statements best qualifies golden rice?
(a) The grains have been fortified with genes to provide three times higher grain yield per acre than other high yielding varieties.
(b) Its grains contain pro-vitamin A which upon ingestion is converted to vitamin A in the human body.
(c) Itsmodified genes cause the synthesis of all the nine essential amino acids.
(d) Its modified genes cause the fortification of its grains with vitamin D.
36. Consider the following:
1. Bluetooth device
2. Cordless phone
3. Microwave oven
4. Wi - Fi device
Which of the above can operate between 2.4 and 2.5 GHz range of radio frequency band?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
37. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles produce one of the following as “exhaust”
(a) NH3
(b) CH4
(c) H2O
(d) H2O2
38. Recently, LASIK (Laser Assisted In Situ Keratomileusis) procedure is being made popular for vision correction. Which one of the following statements in this context is not correct?
(a) LASIK procedure is used to correct refractive errors of the eye.
(b) It is a procedure that permanently changes the shapes of the cornea.
(c) It reduces a person’s dependence on glasses or contact lenses.
(d) It is a procedure that can be done on the person of any age.
39. Which bacterial strain, developed from natural isolates by genetic manipulations, can be used for treating oil spills?
(a) Agrobacterium
(b) Clostridium
(c) Nitrosomonas
(d) Pseudomonas
40. Which feature of some species of blue-green algae helps promote them as bio-fertilisers?
(a) They convert atmospheric methane into ammonia which the crop plants can absorb readily.
(b) They induce the crop plants to produce the enzymes which help convert atmospheric nitrogen to nitrates.
(c) They have the mechanism to convert atmospheric nitrogen into a form that the crop plants can absorb readily.
(d) They induce the roots of the crop plants to absorb the soil nitrates in larger quantities.
41. Other than Jatropha curxas, why is Pongamia pinnata also considered a good option for the production of biodiesel in India?
1. Pongamia pinnata grows naturally in most of the arid regions of India.
2. The seeds of Pongamia pinnata are rich in lipid content of which nearly half is oleic acid.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
42. Due to their extensive rice cultivation, some regions may be contributing to global warming. To what possible reason/reasons is this attributable?
1. The anaerobic conditions associated with rice cultivation cause the emission of methane.
2. When nitrogen based fertilizers are used, nitrous oxide is emitted fromthe cultivated soil.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
43. Given below are the names of four energy crops. Which one of them can be cultivated for ethanol?
(a) Jatropha
(b) Maize
(c) Pongamia
(d) Sunflower
44. Which among the following do/does not belong/belongs to the GSM family of wireless technologies?
(a) EDGE
(b) LTE
(c) DSL
(d) Both EDGE and LTE
45. With reference to the treatment of cancerous tumours, a tool called cyber knife has been making the news. In this context, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) It is a robotic image guided system.
(b) It delivers an extremely precise dose of radiation.
(c) It has the capability of achieving submillimetre accuracy.
(d) It can map the spread of tumour in the body.
46. In the context of space technology, what is “Bhuvan”, recently in the news?
(a) A mini satellite launched by ISRO for promoting the distance education in India.
(b) The name given to the next Moon Impact Probe, for Chandrayan - II.
(c) A geoportal of ISRO with 3D imaging capabilities of India.
(d) A space telescope developed by India.
47. With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements:
1. The Ministries Departments of the Government of India are created by the Prime Minister on the advice of the Cabinet Secretary.
2. Each of the Ministries is assigned to a Minister by the President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and2
(d) Neither 1 nor2
48. Under the administration of which one of the following is the Department of Atomic Energy?
(a) Prime Minister’s Office
(b) Cabinet Secretariat
(c) Ministry of Power
(d) Ministry of Science and Technology
49. In India, who is the Chairman of the National Water Resources Council?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Minister of Water Resources
(c) Minister of Environment and Forests
(d) Minister of Science and Technology
50. If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within
(a) 1 month
(b) 3 months
(c) 6 months
(d) 1 year

MODEL TEST PAPER DOWNLOAD

Model Test Paper For UPSC Pre CSAT 2011 - (Paper-2)

SET - 3

Directions (Qs.1 to 4): Choose the best option to fill in the blanks.
1. The best punctuation is that of which the reader is least conscious; for when punctuation, or lack of it............ itself, it is usually because it..........
(a) conceals, recedes
(b) enjoins, fails
(c) obtrudes, offends
(d) effaces, counts
2. Their achievement in the field of literature is described as ..........; sometimes it is even called.........
(a) significant, paltry
(b) insignificant, influential
(c) magnificent, irresponsible
(d) unimportant, trivial
3. Companies that try to improve employees' performance by.......rewards encourage negative kinds of behaviour, instead of.......a genuine interest in doing the work well.
(a) conferring, discrediting
(b) bestowing, discouraging
(c) giving, seeking
(d) withholding, fostering
4. A growing number of these expert professionals ........ having to train foreigners as the students end up............ the teachers who have to then unhappily contend with no jobs at all or new jobs with drastically reduced pay packets.
(a) welcome, assisting
(b) resist, challenging
(c) resent, replacing
(D) are, supplanting

SUGGESTED READING FOR PAPER II

Comprehension:
1. For  Basics  read  Newspaper articles, Journals and magazine.
2. Then go for ‘Comprehension’ section of  ‘CSAT Comprehensive Manual’ edited by Vivek Kumar Singh.
Interpersonal skills including communication skills:
1. For all level read ‘Interpersonal skills including communication skills’ section of  ‘CSAT Comprehensive Manual’ edited by Vivek Kumar Singh.
OR
For all level read ‘Interpersonal skills including communication skills’ section of  ‘CSAT Guide’ by TMH.
Logical reasoning and analytical ability
1. For  basics  read ‘Logical reasoning and analytical ability’ section of  ‘CSAT Comprehensive Manual’ edited by Vivek Kumar Singh.
2. For Intermediate level read ‘Logical reasoning and analytical ability'   of UPSCPORTAL  Publication
3. For advanced level  read ‘Analytical Reasoning’  by M. K. Pandey-BSC Publications.
Decision making and problem solving:
1. For all level read ‘Decision making and problem solving’section of  ‘CSAT Comprehensive Manual’ edited by Vivek Kumar Singh.
2. 'Problem Solving' by K. Kundan
General mental ability:
1. It  is  nothing new for old IAS aspirants because it was in the old GS Preliminary syllabus.
2. For basics read ‘General mental ability’section of  ‘CSAT Comprehensive Manual’ edited by Vivek Kumar Singh.
3. For Intermediate level read ‘Basic numeracy and General mental ability’  of UPSCPORTAL  Publication
4. For  advanced level read ‘Magical Maths’ by M. Tyra-BSC Publications
Basic numeracy (numbers and their relations, orders of magnitude etc. (Class X level) including Data interpretation (charts, graphs, tables, data sufficiency etc.  - Class X level
1. For basics read ‘Basic numeracy’  section of  ‘CSAT Comprehensive Manual’ edited by Vivek Kumar Singh.
2. For Intermediate level read ‘Basic numeracy and General mental ability’  of UPSCPORTAL  Publication.
3. For  advanced level read ‘Magical Maths’ by M. Tyra-BSC Publications.
English language comprehension skills (Class X level)
1. For basics read ‘English language comprehension skills’ of UPSCPORTAL  Publication.
For all level read ‘English language comprehension skills’ section of  ‘CSAT Comprehensive Manual’ edited by Vivek Kumar Singh
2. For basics read ‘English Grammar and Usage' of   UPSCPORTAL  Publication.
For advanced level read ‘English Grammar, Composition  and Usage’ by Wren and Martin / Nesfield.
NOTE:-
(a) Questions relating to English Language Comprehension skills of Class X level (last item in the Syllabus of Paper-II) will be tested through passages from English language only without providing Hindi translation thereof in the question paper.
(b) The questions will be of multiple choice, objective type.
(c) The prospective candidates are advised to note that no changes are being introduce at this stage in the Civil Services (Main) Examination and Personality Test in the scheme of Civil Services Examination (CSE).

ROAD MAP

Road Map For UPSC IAS Pre. Exam 2011

Dear Students,
As the Civil Services exam, not mearly test your knowledge but it also tests your ability to deliver within a limited time frame. In this regard you need to have a proper planning, proper strategy and a clear road map, where you can monitor your own progress, and if necessary you can change your strategy. In this background I am suggesting few things which I hope will help you in your planning. Here, I am only presenting the General Studies Paper-I by keeping in mind that you are going to prepare the CSAT paper in according to your own convenience.
Before making actual planning you must be aware of what to read, and from where to read in first stage, In second stage you must be aware of how to read, And in third stage you need to have a personal road map where you can implement the above 2 stages. This road map should be individual specific, because needs and awareness are different for different people.
Now let me discuss the first stage that is what to read and from where to read. For traditional area I am suggesting these following books which according to me are more then sufficient to qualify P.T.

Books are:

History:

• Ancient - Ram Sharan Sharma, (old) NCERT
• Medieval- Satish Chandra, (old) NCERT
• Modern India- Bipin Chandra, (old) NCERT
• Art & Culture chapter of India Year Book

Science:

• NCERT- VI to X (New)
• What, Why & How by CSIR.
• Defence Current Affairs & Defence chapter of India Year Book
• S&T Current Affairs & S&T Chapter of India Year Book.

Geography:

• XI, XII NCERT (New)
• Read current affair with Atlas, locate each & everything which are in news.
• Thoroughly use your Atlas

And following chapters of India Year Book:

1. Land & The people.
   
2. Agriculture.
   
3. Energy.
   
4. Environment.
   
5. Water Resources.
   
6. States & Union Territories
   

Polity:

• XI, XII NCERT (New).
• Polity chapter of India Year Book.
• General Information chapter of India Year Book.
• Justice & Law chapter of India Year Book.
• Indian Polity , by Laxmikant
• Current Affairs of Polity

Economics:

• Clear your basic concepts of Economics with any book.
• Current Affair of Economics
• Economic Survey  -summery of each chapter which is given in the last page. And see the boxes given in every chapter.

And following chapters of India Year Book:

1. Agriculture.
   
2. Basic Economic Data.
   
3. Commerce.
   
4. Communication.
   
5. Education.
   
6. Finance.
   
7. Corporate Affairs.
   
8. Food & Civil Supplier.
   
9. Health & Family Welfare.
   
10. Housing.
    
11. Industry.
    
12. Labour.
    
13. Mass Communication.
    
14. Planning.
    
15. Rural development.
    
16. Transport.
    
17. Welfare.
    
18. Youth Affair & Sports.
    

Environment:

• Environment chapter of India Year Book.
• Geography books of NCERT (new).
• Current Affair.
• Internet

Current Affairs

This is the most important section of this paper. After analyzing the recent question paper it is necessary for every aspirant that he/she should give more attention to those traditional area which are in news. For Example:
(a) India’s Fast Breeder Reactor has achieved certain milestone or
(b) The launch of cryogenic technology had failed recently; in this respect you must be aware with the traditional portion of these areas, these includes:

What is Cryogenic technology?
When India started to develop this technology?
How many countries poses this technology? etc.

In the same manner:

What is India’s Nuclear programme?
When India started the programme?
How many stages are there in India’s Nuclear Programme?
In which Generation the Fast Breeder Reactor comes?
What are its major use /Advantages? etc.

In Short you should change your traditional way of preparation and mould it with the present trend. The present trend is that you need to prepare your traditional area through current affair. That is whatever is in news you must have the awareness of its traditional background & its concept, Now the next question comes in your mind is that, how one can achieve this?

In this background I would suggest you to follow these steps :

1. You need to have a sound knowledge of current affair and the traditional portion of your G.S. paper.
2. Read traditional area, historical background and constitutional provision (if necessary) to each topic which is in news.

For example In polity section what ever is in news try to connect that with the constitutional provision, and its political history. Suppose government has recently amended the constitution and provided 50% reservation for women in panchayat, so in this case you should read the constitutional provision of panchayat, its political history in India, that is from ancient India to till date. In this way you can prepare your traditional area with the current affairs. To achieve this you do not have to do any research because the above mention books are written in such a manner that you can find the historical background with its concept, in one place, you have to just update that with your current affair.
At the same time, with in the Current Affair section there are some special areas where you should have a good command because questions are asked directly from those areas.

They are:-

• Various Bills and Acts and their important provisions.

• Important Reports and their contents.

• Various governments plans programmes.

• Initiatives taken by the government in various fields.

I hope now you are familiar with what to read and from where to read. Then the next question comes how to read.

How to read?

In this regard I would suggest that what ever you read you must solve the multiple choice questions.
Make your own point wise notes (if necessary) revise your notes again and again.
 If possible make your own multiple choice questions with the help of previous year question papers.

• Clear your concepts from NCERT.
• Think and analyze those concepts again and again.
• Revise again and again, and no need to mug up the factual information, try to remember only important facts and figures so that you can utilize those, in your mains exam as well.
• From, May solve the question papers in strictly exam like condition. That is with in the 2 hour time frame at morning and evening season.

The Road Map:

Now let me discuss about the road map, according to me the road map should be individual specific. A general road map will not provide any fruitful results because candidates awareness and needs are different from person to person, But there are some specific guide lines which one need to follow while making his/her road map. Those points I have already discussed in my what to read & how to read section. Here I would only suggest that according to your convenience make your own road map, at this you are now aware of what to read & How to read, the only thing you have to make is that when you are going to study. Here I want to clarify one thing that to qualify the P.T. you must have to revise the whole thing more than twice, So keep this in your mind before making your own road map.
I am here to help you call me with in the specified time, I will try my best to sought out your problem, work hard and be honest with yourself,
May God bless all of you!
Thank You
S.A. Majid
+91 9911626661

(courtesy:upscportal)

NOTIFICATION

Civil Service Examination, 2011

Examination Notice No. 05/2011-CSP

F. No. 1/8/2010-E.I(B) : Preliminary Examination of the Civil Services Examination for recruitment to the Services and Posts mentioned below will be held by the Union Public Service Commission on 12th June, 2011 in accordance with the Rules published by the Department of Personnel & Training in the Gazette of India Extraordinary dated 19th February, 2011.

1. Indian Administrative Service.
2. Indian Foreign Service.
3. Indian Police Service.
4. Indian P & T Accounts & Finance Service, Group ‘A’.
5. Indian Audit and Accounts Service, Group ‘A’.
6. Indian Revenue Service (Customs and Central Excise), Group ‘A’.
7. Indian Defence Accounts Service, Group ‘A’.
8. Indian Revenue Service (I.T.), Group ‘A’.
9. Indian Ordnance Factories Service, Group ‘A’ (Assistant Works Manager, Administration).
10. Indian Postal Service, Group ‘A’.
11. Indian Civil Accounts Service, Group ‘A’.
12. Indian Railway Traffic Service, Group ‘A’.
13. Indian Railway Accounts Service, Group 'A'.
14. Indian Railway Personnel Service, Group ‘A’.
15. Post of Assistant Security Commissioner in Railway Protection Force, Group ‘A’
16. Indian Defence Estates Service, Group ‘A’.
17. Indian Information Service (Junior Grade), Group ‘A’.
18. Indian Trade Service, Group 'A' (Gr. III).
19. Indian Corporate Law Service, Group "A".
20. Armed Forces Headquarters Civil Service, Group ‘B’ (Section Officer’s Grade).
21. Delhi, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli Civil Service, Group 'B'.
22. Delhi, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli Police Service, Group 'B'.
23. Pondicherry Civil Service, Group 'B'.
24. Pondicherry Police Service, Group 'B'.

• The number of vacancies to be filled on the result of the examination is expected to be approximately 880. The number of vacancies may get increased.
• Reservation will be made for candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes. Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward Classes and Physically Disabled Categories in respect of vacancies as may be fixed by the Government.

Note I : The list of services participating in the Civil Services Examination, 2011 is tentative.
Note II : Services identified suitable for Physically Disabled Categories along with respective functional classification and physical requirements are given below :-

Qualification:

The candidate must hold a degree of any of Universities incorporated by an Act of the Central or State Legislature in India or other educational institutions established by an Act of Parliament or declared to be deemed as a University Under Section-3 of the University Grants Commission Act, 1956, or possess an equivalent qualification.
NOTE I : Candidates who have appeared at an examination the passing of which would render them educationally qualified for the Commission’s examination but have not been informed of the results as also the candidates who intend to appear at such a qualifying examination will also be eligible for admission to the Preliminary Examination.  All candidates who are declared qualified by the Commission for taking the Civil Services (Main) Examination will be required  to produce proof of passing the requisite examination with their application for the Main Examination failing which such  candidates will not be admitted to the Main Examination. The applications for the Main  Examination will be called sometime in the month of July/August, 2011.
NOTE II : In exceptional cases the Union Public Service Commission may treat a candidate who has not any of the foregoing qualifications as a qualified candidate provided that he/ she has passed examination conducted by  the other Institutions, the standard of which in the opinion of the Commission justifies his/her admission to the examination.
NOTE III : Candidates possessing professional and technical qualifications which are recognised by Government as equivalent to professional and technical degree would also be eligible for admission to the examination.
NOTE IV : Candidates who have passed the final professional M.B.B.S. or any other Medical Examination but have not completed their internship by the time of submission of their applications for the Civil Services (Main) Examination, will be provisionally admitted  to the Examination provided they submit along with their application a copy of certificate from the concerned authority of the University/Institution that they had passed  the requisite final professional medical examination. In such cases, the candidates will be required to produce at the time of their interview original Degree or a certificate from the concerned competent authority of the University/Institution that they had completed all requirements (including completion of internship) for the award of the Degree.

Age:

• A candidate must have attained the age of 21 years and must not have attained the age of 30 years on 1st August, 2011

Plan of Examination:

The Civil Services Examination will consist of two successive stages (vide Appendix I Section-I below).
(i) Civil Services Preliminary Examination (Objective type) for the selection of candidates for the Main Examination; and
(ii) Civil Services Main Examination (Written and Interview) for the selection of candidates for the various Services and posts noted above.
Applications are now invited for the Preliminary Examination only. Candidates who are declared by the Commission to have qualified for admission to the Main Examination will have to apply again, in the Detailed Application Form which would be supplied to them. The Main Examination is likely to be held in October/November, 2011.

FEE :

(a) Candidates applying Online (exempting Female/SC/ST/PH Candidates who are exempted from payment of fee) are required to pay a reduced fee of Rs. 50/- (Rupees Fifty only) either by remitting the money in any Branch of SBI by Cash, or by using net banking facility of SBI or by using Visa/Master Credit/Debit Card.
(b) Candidates applying Offline (through Common Application Form) are required to pay a fee of Rs. 100/- (Rupees One Hundred only) through a single Central Recruitment Stamp. Central Recruitment Fee Stamp (NOT Postage Stamp) of the requisite denomination may be obtained from the Post Office and affixed on the application form in the space provided therein. The stamp must be got cancelled from the issuing Post Office with the date stamp of the Post Office in such a manner that the impression of the cancellation mark partially overflows on the application form itself but within the space provided on the Application  form itself. The impression of the cancellation mark should be clear and distinct  to facilitate the identification of date and the Post Office of issue.
Candidates residing abroad should deposit the prescribed fee in the office of India's High Commissioner, Ambassador or representative abroad as the case may be for credit to account head "051-Public Service Commission-Examination Fees" and attach the receipt with the application.

Center of Examination:

AGARTALA	CHANDIGARH	IMPHAL	LUCKNOW	RANCHI
AHMEDABAD	CHENNAI	ITANAGAR	MADURAI	SAMBALPUR
AIZAWL	CUTTACK	JAIPUR	MUMBAI	SHILLONG
ALIGARH	DEHRADUN	JAMMU	NAGPUR	SHIMLA
ALLAHABAD	DELHI	JODHPUR	PANAJI (GOA)	SRINAGAR
AURANGABAD	DHARWAD	JORHAT	PATNA	THIRUVANANTHAPURAM
BANGALORE	DISPUR	KOCHI	PUDUCHERRY	TIRUPATI
BAREILLY	GANGTOK	KOHIMA	PORT BLAIR	UDAIPUR
BHOPAL	HYDERABAD	KOLKATA	RAIPUR	VISHAKHAPATNAM

IMPORTANT

1. Candidates To Ensure Their Eligibility For The Examination

The Candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfill all eligibility conditions for admission to examination. Their admission to all the stages of the examination will be purely provisional subject to satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions.
Mere issue of admission certificate to the candidate will not imply that his/her candidature has been finally cleared by the Commission. Commission take up verification of eligibility conditions with reference to original
documents only after the candidate has qualified for Interview/Personality Test.

2. How To Apply

(a) Candidates may apply Online by using the website  http://www.upsconline.nic.in  Detailed instructions for filling up online applications are available on the abovementioned website.
(b) Candidates may also apply Offline in the Common Application Form devised by the Commission for its examinations, which can be purchased from the designated Head Post Offices/Post Offices (specified in Appendix III of the Notice) throughout the country against cash payment of Rs. 30/- (Rupees Thirty only). Each such Form can be used only once and only for one examination. In case of any difficulty in obtaining Application Forms from the designated HPOs/ POs, the candidates should immediately contact the concerned post Master or UPSC’s “FORMS SUPPLY MONITORING CELL” over Telephone No. 011- 3389366/FAX No. 011-23387310.
(c) Candidates are advised to read carefully the Instructions for filling up the "Online Application Form” given in Appendix-II (A) and Instructions for Offline Applications given in Appendix II (B) of this notice.

3. Lat Date For Receipt of Applications:

(a) Online:

• The online Applications can be filled up to 21st March, 2011 till 11.59 PM after which the link will be disabled.

(b) Offline:

• All offline applications must reach the “Controller of Examinations, Union Public Service Commission, Dholpur House, Shahjahan Road, New Delhi - 110069” either by hand or by Post/Speed Post or by Courier, on or before the 21st March,2011. Candidates should note that applications will be received by hand, only one at a time, at the designated counter(s) and not in bulk, till 5 PM only. However, in respect of candidates residing abroad or in certain remote localities specified in para 6 of this Notice the last date for receipt of application by Post/Speed Post only (not by Hand or by Courier) is 28th March, 2011.

4. Penalty For Wrong Answer

Candidates should note that there will be penalty (negative marking) for wrong answers marked by a candidate in the Objective Type Question Papers.

5. Facilitation Counter For Guidance of Candidates

In case of any guidance/information/clarification regarding their applications, candidature etc. candidates can contact UPSC’s Facilitation Counter near gate ‘C’ of its campus in person or over Telephone No. 011- 3385271/011-23381125/011- 23098543 on working days between 10.00 hrs and 17.00 hrs.

6. Mobile Phones Banned

(a) Mobile phones, pagers or any other communication devices are not allowed inside the premises where the examination is being conducted. Any infringement of these instructions shall entail disciplinary action including ban from future examinations.
(b) Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the banned items including mobile phones/pagers to the venue of the examination, as arrangement for safe-keeping cannot be assured.
7. Candidates are advised not to bring any valuable/costly items to the Examination Halls, as safe-keeping of the same cannot be assured. Commission will not be responsible for any loss in this regard.

Website: www.upsc.gov.in

Detailed Notification (In English)

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Courtesy: upsc.gov.in